Posts Tagged ‘all in bet’

Pot Committed

Hello,

I usually hear this statement: “He had to call the all in bet because he was pot committed”. It sounds simple but I don’t know how would I ascertain if I’m already pot committed. Any thoughts? Also, is it a bigger factor in tournament play compared in a ring game? What do you think?

Many thanks,
Luis
Luis,

This scenario is the same for ring games and tournaments. When someone is pot committed, the pot has so much money in it compared to their remaining stack, they must call or go all in. This is more applicable to short stacks, but usually if a pot is laying better than 2 to 1 to your money, you are committed in a lot of hands. The only time you would not be is if you have a limited number of draws.

An Argument About Side Pot

Hi,

I was in a no limit Texas Holdem tournament the other day. Unfortunately, an argument about side pot came up.

There were four players left, player A, player B, player C, and player D. Player A with 1000 first called the 100 in the big blind. Player B with 500 called the 100. Player C with 300 went all in for 300. Player D folded. All figures were in chips.

Later, player A called the additional 200 from the all in bet of player C. Player B followed and also called the additional 200. Flop came with three way action: player A, player B, and player C. Each player had invested 300.

Because he was the first to act after the flop, player A then made a move and then went all in, 700. Well, all of us knew then that player C had a great chance of winning 900 if his hand was the best hand at the table. Also, it was obvious that in the event player B calls the bet of player A, there would be a side pot and that whoever of the two has the best hand would win the side pot at hand. Finally, player A would have the additional 500 he placed in the pot that the other players could not cover as well as the pot from Player 1, Player 2 and Player 3.

Now, what do you think will happen in the event player B folds to the all in bet of player A? Also, in case player B folds after player A goes all in with more chips, do you feel player B can win the original pot against Player A as well as player C?

Personally, if I will be asked, if ever player B has chips left he has to call all his chips off to the bet of player A to win the main pot. In the event he folds, he will not anymore be able to have the pot. On the flip side, my friend insisted that player B should claim the all in bet after the flop of player C as he matched such bet before player A went all in. He argued that player B doesn’t need to put his chips at stake to have the original pot.

Any thoughts?

Thanks in advance!

Regards,
Rayner
Rayner,

Once a player goes all in and has multiple callers, the callers then are allowed to bet on the side. They are not just betting on the side, but they are also battling for the rights to the main pot. If player B folds to the all-in bet of player A, he forfeits his rights to the main pot.

About the Play With Adam Levy’s Ace in the Muck

Hi,

I joined 2007 WPT at the Fallsview. Well, just yesterday I was on the 19th place. Now, I’m very interested about your insight regarding the play with Adam Levy’s ace in the muck. Please bear with me.

Thank you so much!

Sather
Sather,

This is the proper ruling. Since he called an all in bet and none else was in the hand, the hand must be run out.

About All In Bet

Hello,

In a certain tournament, a guy went all in for 1500. The blinds were 500/1000. Do you think the next guy should make it 2000 or else he can just call the all in bet? I’m actually clueless. Please, I need your help.

Thanks!

Regards,
Revell
Revell,

If he is the only player left to act, he can just call the all-in bet. Otherwise, the can raise up to the entire amount in his stack.